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Re: Are bands still being adjusted/redefined at BOS? I.e will our results change slig >lulwut >lolwot LOOOOOOOOOOOL....wat ;)

Hi everyone! Hopefully everyone's happy with their results! Someone mentioned to me that bands may still be adjusted after the fact. The reasoning was that our marks have been adjusted with school ranks etc etc, but our bands haven't been properly defined based on the difficulty of the exams...

I just did it again and got 62.04 seconds ;_; 0/2 dammit LOL 1/2 if we're lucky

I found r when the volume was 10^-6 by subbing it into the V formula and rearranging, and then i subbed that value into the integration of dr/dt (once i had found the constant) and rearranged to get the time. I'm not 100% that that's what i did, but looking at it right now, that's what i'm...

YES i got like 20.6.... seconds ish. cant remember exactly but around there. It felt a little funny because my expression for r was kinda weird though

I hope its 50/70, but i dunno, the early parts of the paper were fairly straightforward, I'm thinking it might be low 50's 52-53/70 for E4

You can have vertically opposite angles be equal, but not necessarily drawn from the same lines right? Like just imagining the two triangles being skewed either way, and p is no longer colinear. I think you had to prove it using the angles to the tangent. I had no idea for this question during...

I'm thinking E4 might be around 52-53/70

You had to take the AOC reflex angle to satisfy the rule that AOC=2*ABC

MC 2 was the inverse function, which is reflected about the line y=x, so it would have to be d) not b)

Im back to thinking it's B) again.. LOL sin(2x)=a so arcsin(a)=2x but lets do it in general for sinx first. Sinx=sina so x=a x=npi+(-1)^n*a sub in x as 2x and a as arcsin(a) 2x=npi+(-1)^n*arcsin(a) so x=(npi+(-1)^n*arcsin(a)) / 2 which is answer b)

general formula is just pi not 2pi for sin though. and its sin^-1(a) not just a, so sin^-1(a) represents 2x which when divided by 2 is equal to x, which works with the general formula where you have to have the angle at the end. I'm pretty sure it's A) now.

oh wow, just saw the sin-1(a) not a... LOL aw man how did i miss that

6a was the general formula one right? 2x should = the general formula i think, so i figured x= (general formula) / 2

general formula for sinx is x=180n+(-1)^n .a (general formula for sinx) so the formula for sin2x would be 2x= 180n+(-1)^n .a (same thing) so its x= general formula/2 (which is b))

I'm hoping I got all 10 correct (aren't we all): 1)c 2)d 3)c 4)d 5)a 6)b 7)a 8)d 9)b 10)c

MC 6 i got B) MC 10 i got C)

Guesses for the E4 cut-off anyone?

I'm always late to the party :'(

if you did alternate angles from the tangent drawn between the two circles, the proof would be valid right? you're proving that both angles produced from the tangent to their respective lines are equal -> therefore lies on the same line / co-linear.. I think..