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after seein that ive changed my belief that i got 60-70% and lowered it to 50-60% dammm you terrrrrryyyyyyyy leeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! you make me feel bad!!!!!!!!!!!

i realistically placed my maximum at 81, knowing i got some of my questions wrong, i.e partial fractions. i lose a heap to silly mistakes, so at worst case scenario 50%, however i reckon i got 60-65% so thats a mark between 78 and 72

7i) consider triangles MPV, WPM and VWP PV=PW=s (radii of same circle) hence VWP is iscololese (similiar proof for OVW reveals that OVPW is a kite) diagonals of a kite intersect at right angles, if that isnt a general proof u can use angle sum of triangles to prove that PMV=90 ii)OT^2 =...

1 let ST = x, PS=b RS=a (althought typo says e in answer) by alternate angles on parallel lines, BST=STP=@ (@ = pheta) tan@= b/x x=bcot@ volume of water V= ((b^2)cot@)/2 when it is turned, V=ah ((b^2)cot@)/2 = ah ((b^2)cot@)/2a = h, as required.

yea that question doesnt make sense to me either, i had a look at the answers posted, but even with the first bit its still confusing, i keep ending up with1 as the answer. like bar l1wl is how i see that, which just = 1? what am i missing or not getting. ill check over the answer again

this is obviously an application of demoives theorm, use your induction hypothesis if you cannot see how it relates.

im kinda nervous for it. there are only 8 ppl in my class and narrowly just came 5th even though i was getting equal third in marks by the trial. ive been basing my expectations of my mark that i am an average student, however i have a very high stupid mistake rate in intergration and the easy...

i knew how to do that, it was probably just looking at the working or the way it was written which got me nervous

everyone in here is heaps good. ive been counting on the fact that im an average 4u student to get an average mark in 4u that still would be better than only doing 2 and 3u, but i tried the 2002 paper and got 70 / 120, for me that was pretty good but even though now i start realising the day...

a couple of times ive seen solutions to problems in mechanics where people intergrate both sides of an equasion. i dont really get this. i think there is an example in the 2002 HSC q7 a (ii) in which i breifly saw the answer may have involved doing this but i could be wrong or just interperating...

for subbin in 1, u get 1(2m-1) + 1(1-2n) + 2n-2m =2m - 2m + 1 -1 +2n - 2m = 0 for 2 it maight be a bit trickyer

ok.... i think i need a probability tree... on jan 1 he has a 2/3 chance of being there the next day, and another 2/3 for the one after that so the chance of him being there 2 days in a row is 4/9 if he goes to the other house instead on the 2nd, he then has a 1/4 chance of changin back...

check suamara's line

have u written out the question correctly, it looks a bit stuffed around, well anyways sub in x=1 and x=2 into P(x) and if it equals 0 than (x-2)(x-1) is a factor

where does the z=i come from? EDIT-- oh i see dont worry

for any log function, d/dx of log f(x) will = f'(x)/f(x) remember that and it shouldnt b hard

ha ive done it again with u

on second thought i found a mistake, let z = x + iy (x + iy)^2 = i (x-iy) x^2 - y^2 +2ixy = y + ix equating real and imaginary 2xy = x.... 2y=1 y= 1/2 x^2 - y^2 = y x^2 - 1/4 = 1/2 x= sqrt 3/4

i just tried it then, for some reason i got real and imaginary parts equaling 0, ill try again, mayb thats not the only answer

heres a tip, if you ahve a mod of z like lz - (a + bi)l than its point on the argand diagram will be a and bi. like you dont need to go finding the center straight away and stuff, and if its a simple question you can just plot it without having to do any work