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Sam14113

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View attachment 40745
does anyone know how to do this?
Here’s how I would do it:
- Substitute x=1 into the given equation
- Then on the LHS, invoke the symmetry property of Pascal’s Triangle (m choose k = m choose m-k for all appropriate m and k) on only the terms of the form 2n choose k, where k>n.
- Then add 2n choose n to both sides and divide both sides by 2

Unless Drongoski is correct, this should get you to the solution
 

scaryshark09

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I think the formula is incorrect. As a counter-example: let n = 3, x = 1



Hold it; maybe I'm wrong!
It only goes to n on the second one, whereas the first one goes to 2n, hence why it’s double the answer
 

Sam14113

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I think the formula is incorrect. As a counter-example: let n = 3, x = 1



Hold it; maybe I'm wrong!
Can you elaborate? Not sure which equation you’re saying is wrong and which sides you’re substituting into
 

scaryshark09

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ye so he has one left in his expansion, so how does he end up with 2 again?
He cancels out the double up, and then he has 1 of each left from 1 to 2n
Since this is symmetrical, he can say that equals 2 x from 1 to n

realistically I think he could have just written only 1 of those 2nCn in the first place
 

Drongoski

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@Drongoski why did u have two of 2nCn in the first place?
(1 + 1)^2n has 2n+1 (odd number!) of terms. The expression 2nC0 + 2nC1 + . . . + 2nCn has n+1 terms. By adding an additional 2nCn to the remaining expression, I make it equal to the 1st half. I did not notice this at the beginning and that's why I thought the identity was incorrect at first.
 
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