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Would x=-6 be inclusive, though? The curve doesn't have a gradient or a value for f'(x) at that point, so it wouldn't have concavity, or f''(x) wouldn't exist at x=-6. Or do we just take the limit of the derivative as x approaches -6?(iii) For f''(x) you can think of concavity. (concave up parabolas or concave down). It wants f''(x) > 0 so it wants a "smiley face" (how i remembered it) ie. a concave up parabola. If you look at the graph and trace the graphs, you'll be able to draw a concave up parabola between x = -6 and x = 0
and a concave down parabola from x = 0 to x = infinity.
So f''(x) >0 means positive concavity which occurs in: -6 =< x < 0 (no equality at zero because there is a point of inflexion which is f''(x) = 0)
Hm, I think it would still be inclusive. It's continuousWould x=-6 be inclusive, though? The curve doesn't have a gradient or a value for f'(x) at that point, so it wouldn't have concavity, or f''(x) wouldn't exist at x=-6. Or do we just take the limit of the derivative as x approaches -6?
