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I don't think I understand the step between 1 and 2.
Could someone please explain it?
I don't think I understand the step between 1 and 2.
Could someone please explain it?
U sub is great.Never seen THAT before :O that's so cool, I'de just do ye ol'e
(Don't mind me, I'm just practising my latex ^.^)
Edit...
Why are you people so fast...
LOL how embarrassing for me.aaeldar made a mistake, otherwise is wrong.
integral[f(x)*f '(x)] dx=(1/2)[f(x)]^2+C
Don't worry - we all make a slip now and then; that makes us all human.LOL how embarrassing for me.
Disregard my post D:
I still don't understand why the d(sinx) has disappeared. Also, why isn't the integration of Sin(x)^3 all fancy like the integration of Sin(x)^2 haha?From step 1. You can clearly write,
So in when we are integrating like this, we are integrating with respect to . Note: If were normally integrating with respect to we would not "simply add one to the power and divide by the new power." Since we're in respect with we can do so at our will.
With your limits. I am sure you can do it from here.
It's like treating it as a variable. I just cancelled the . I can integrate with respect to .I still don't understand why the d(sinx) has disappeared. Also, why isn't the integration of Sin(x)^3 all fancy like the integration of Sin(x)^2 haha?
EDIT: What exactly is d(sinx) now when there isn't the 1/dx in there?
And yeah, I usually do the substitution method, but this seemed too interesting to ignore haha
means the derivative of sinx with respect to x, which is cosx. So - they're the same thing.I still don't understand why the d(sinx) has disappeared. Also, why isn't the integration of Sin(x)^3 all fancy like the integration of Sin(x)^2 haha?
EDIT: What exactly is d(sinx) now when there isn't the 1/dx in there?
And yeah, I usually do the substitution method, but this seemed too interesting to ignore haha
I understand that d/dx(sinx) is cosx but I don't understand what it is when it becomes d(sinx) after multiplying by dx,means the derivative of sinx with respect to x, which is cosx. So - they're the same thing.
If the integral was just then it would be 'fancy', but because it's , where the derivative of the function is there, we can use a substitution or just the general rule that .
If you look at it closely it's not just , but rather it's . There is no new multiplication happening but rather where the was in the original question, they have substituted in . By doing this it is showing that the integral is in the form of .basically, I don't understand
How this step works. What happens to the d(sinx). I see that we've integrated sin^2(x) (or at least, that's what I think you've done), but then what happened to d(sinx). Does it get cancelled out by something or what?
I'm just glad that you understand it now!Ohhh. I get you now! Thank you so much for your help! I'll have to try to find some more similar questions in past exams to practice this considering I've never actually seen it in my text book...
I think what confused me was when you had 1/2[f(x)]^2 rather than something like 1/(n+1)[f(x)]^(n+1). But regardless, thank you for helping me despite how annoying it probably is when I keep asking the same thing when the answer is right in front of me!