Try this on your calculator. Nobody knows why it works.
First we need some definitions.
Suppose dn=divisor function of n=sum of positive divisors of n
Hence
d1=1
d2=1+2=3
d3=1+3=4
d4=1+2+4=7
d5=1+5=6
d6=1+2+3+6=12
etc.
And suppose hn=n-th harmonic number=1/1+1/2+1/3+...+1/n
So
h1=1/1=1
h2=1/1+1/2=3/2 (alternatively h2=h1+1/2=3/2)
h3=1/1+1/2+1/3=11/6 (alternatively h3=h2+1/3=11/6)
h4=1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4=25/12 (alternatively h4=h3+1/4=25/12)
h5=1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5=137/60 (alternatively h5=h4+1/5=137/60)
h6=1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6=49/20 (alternatively h6=h5+1/6=49/20)
etc.
And define fn=n-th Lagarias' number=hn+ehnlnhn.
Then we have the
Proposition For all n>1, fn>dn.
And this is where the calculator comes in.
Check on the calculator for example f2>d2:
f2=3/2+e3/2ln(3/2)=3.32>d2=3.
And likewise for others:
f3=11/6+e11/6ln(11/6)=5.62>d3=4
f4=25/12+e25/12ln(25/12)=7.98>d4=7
f5=137/60+e137/60ln(137/60)=10.38>d5=6
f6=49/20+e49/20ln(49/20)=12.83>d6=12
etc.
Nobody knows why this works because the proposition is equivalent to the Riemann Hypothesis!
Lagarias proved equivalence in 2001: http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0008/0008177v2.pdf
First we need some definitions.
Suppose dn=divisor function of n=sum of positive divisors of n
Hence
d1=1
d2=1+2=3
d3=1+3=4
d4=1+2+4=7
d5=1+5=6
d6=1+2+3+6=12
etc.
And suppose hn=n-th harmonic number=1/1+1/2+1/3+...+1/n
So
h1=1/1=1
h2=1/1+1/2=3/2 (alternatively h2=h1+1/2=3/2)
h3=1/1+1/2+1/3=11/6 (alternatively h3=h2+1/3=11/6)
h4=1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4=25/12 (alternatively h4=h3+1/4=25/12)
h5=1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5=137/60 (alternatively h5=h4+1/5=137/60)
h6=1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+1/6=49/20 (alternatively h6=h5+1/6=49/20)
etc.
And define fn=n-th Lagarias' number=hn+ehnlnhn.
Then we have the
Proposition For all n>1, fn>dn.
And this is where the calculator comes in.
Check on the calculator for example f2>d2:
f2=3/2+e3/2ln(3/2)=3.32>d2=3.
And likewise for others:
f3=11/6+e11/6ln(11/6)=5.62>d3=4
f4=25/12+e25/12ln(25/12)=7.98>d4=7
f5=137/60+e137/60ln(137/60)=10.38>d5=6
f6=49/20+e49/20ln(49/20)=12.83>d6=12
etc.
Nobody knows why this works because the proposition is equivalent to the Riemann Hypothesis!
Lagarias proved equivalence in 2001: http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/math/pdf/0008/0008177v2.pdf
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