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Question about geom. (1 Viewer)

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When you're proving something to be a cyclic quad, say ABCD, and you know that ACB=ADB, is the statement you make still "angles subtended in same segment are equal"?
 

ezzy85

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i think thats fine. i usually say "converse of angles on the same arc" and get away with it.
 

maniacguy

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The formal reason:

If the endpoints of an interval AB subtend equal angles at two points C and D on the same side of the interval, then the endpoints of the interval and the two points are concyclic.

Thus A, B, C, D lie on a circle, so ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral.

(Note: That's the formal reason. You may be able to get away with writing less in the HSC)
 

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