ok so
the integral of cos ax = 1/a sin ax
therefore, doesn't it follow that
the derivative of sin ax = cos ax
therefore, why is the derivative of sin 3x = 3 cos 3x?
sorri if is a silly question i just dont understand WHY you have to apply the function of a function rule?? answer if u know.
the integral of cos ax = 1/a sin ax
therefore, doesn't it follow that
the derivative of sin ax = cos ax
therefore, why is the derivative of sin 3x = 3 cos 3x?
sorri if is a silly question i just dont understand WHY you have to apply the function of a function rule?? answer if u know.