His second last part is wrong then.But I thought he did that already and then used the fundamental theorem of calculus to revert the derivative?
Or was the wrong part of the working what was being integrated. I'm not fully processing maths today to figure it out myself
His second last part is wrong then.
How does -1 become -x when the fundamental theorem of calculus is used?
Wasn't the –1 just a typo? (By the way, this wasn't the fundamental theorem of calculus. The symbol ∫ on its own (without any limits of integration) just means an antiderivative, so ∫d/dx (f(x)) dx = f(x) (+C) simply because ∫ and d/dx are essentially inverse operators.)How does -1 become -x when the fundamental theorem of calculus is used?
Where did the -1 come from ?
How does -1 become -x when the fundamental theorem of calculus is used?
Wasn't the –1 just a typo? (By the way, this wasn't the fundamental theorem of calculus. The symbol ∫ on its own (without any limits of integration) just means an antiderivative, so ∫d/dx (f(x)) dx = f(x) (+C) simply because ∫ and d/dx are essentially inverse operators.)
Omega told me off for no reason...Why?
Omega told me off for no reason...
New Question
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+sqrt(arcsin(sqrtx))Omega told me off for no reason...
New Question
It requires 3 substitutions.
Are you sure it has a nice closed form? My first substitution was which made the integral to to by integration by parts, and I'm pretty sure that second integral doesn't have a closed form solution.It requires 3 substitutions.