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Lugia101101

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Last one does feel like a cheat though.
 
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Lugia101101

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For a function to be invertable, it must be defined such that it is one-to-one. If a function is monotone, then every value will result in a single value of , however, the function must be strictly monotonic, else there could exist two values and such that . So if the function is one-to-one, then there exists an inverse, and hence will only have an inverse if it is strictly monotone.
 

leehuan

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For a function to be invertable, it must be defined such that it is one-to-one. If a function is monotone, then every value will result in a single value of , however, the function must be strictly monotonic, else there could exist two values and such that . So if the function is one-to-one, then there exists an inverse, and hence will only have an inverse if it is strictly monotone.
A bit confused. What do you mean by 'strictly monotonic'? Or were you intending to say strictly increasing/decreasing (i.e. f'(x)≠0)
 

Lugia101101

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A function with no two points and such that . An example would be:

Which fits the definition for monotonic increasing, but isn't strictly monotonic increasing. (From Wikipedia)
A function can still have at some point and have an inverse, such as , which is strictly monotonic increasing, has at , and has the inverse function .
 
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InteGrand

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Also, we don't need a function to be monotonic for it to be invertible, since we can easily form discontinuous functions that are not monotonic but pass the horizontal line test. However, you can prove as an exercise that a continuous one-to-one function must be monotonic.
 

leehuan

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Was basically the point of the question. In addition, the function has to be continuous.



However, I haven't heard of the "strict monotonicity" grammar though
 

InteGrand

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The tan function defined above is continuous but not monotonic.

It's easy to come up with a discontinuous function that's not monotonic but is invertible. It suffices to take a graph that has two branches, one starting at the point (0, 2) and decreasing strictly, smoothly and asymptotically to y = 1, and the other branch a reflection of this about the y-axis and shifted down enough so that the overall graph passes the horizontal line test (and only include one of the points at the discontinuity at x = 0).
 
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InteGrand

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Note that arctan(t) + arctan(1/t) is only equal to pi/2 if t := a/b > 0. If t < 0, then it's -pi/2. The result in the question in the case t < 0 is similar, but with a minus sign in front of one of the trig. functions.
 
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leehuan

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The inspiration of that question was actually just the fact

a sin(x) + b cos(x) = b cos(x) + a sin(x)
 
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davidgoes4wce

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This was the solution:


I had my own solution. With geometry proofs Im aware that there are multiple ways you can go about explaining step by step.









Just want to check if my working out is right.
 
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