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This is how I currently think the ‘Alternation of Generations’ cycle works, but I need help fixing this idea:
The gametophyte is performed away from the parent, sporophyte plant.
This means the cycle follows as;
1 – Sporophyte plant’s flower or cone (angiosperm or gymnosperm), has their gametes spread across different locations, i.e. grass.
2 – These gametes multiply through mitosis to create bundles of 4 specific gamete variants (male or female?).
3 – The gamete of the opposite sex lands onto one of these bundles and creates a fertilisation (Angiosperm would make a flower, while gymnosperm would create a cone – despite being away from the parent?).
4 – After fertilisation/germination, a new sporophyte individual would be created out of this flower/cone as a seed had formed and grown into this plant, eventually developing one of or both sets of gonads that would eventually begin the process of gymnosperms through the spreading of gametes once more.
This is definitely wrong, but can you please tell me where and why!
The gametophyte is performed away from the parent, sporophyte plant.
This means the cycle follows as;
1 – Sporophyte plant’s flower or cone (angiosperm or gymnosperm), has their gametes spread across different locations, i.e. grass.
2 – These gametes multiply through mitosis to create bundles of 4 specific gamete variants (male or female?).
3 – The gamete of the opposite sex lands onto one of these bundles and creates a fertilisation (Angiosperm would make a flower, while gymnosperm would create a cone – despite being away from the parent?).
4 – After fertilisation/germination, a new sporophyte individual would be created out of this flower/cone as a seed had formed and grown into this plant, eventually developing one of or both sets of gonads that would eventually begin the process of gymnosperms through the spreading of gametes once more.
This is definitely wrong, but can you please tell me where and why!