Can someone please explain this to me? I don't have solutions (for 2022 cssa trial) and I am unsure if my answer is correct. I also don't understand how two pure breeds RR x WW results in those genotypes? Wouln't they all be heterozygotes and then they would not have a 3:1 ratio?
-
Finished your HSC? Check out our University Discussion, Non-School forums or help out next year's HSC students! -
YOU can help the next generation of students in the community! Share your trial papers and notes on our Notes & Resources page
biology mod 5 question (1 Viewer)
- Thread starter Lara34
- Start date
its_ace21
/æɪs/
that isnt mendelian inheritance because if it was then the third trait (roan) wouldn't have existed
mendelian is when theres two traits only and if theyre a heterozygous then the more dominant allele would've been present
the 3:1 is for mendelian so no
mendelian is when theres two traits only and if theyre a heterozygous then the more dominant allele would've been present
the 3:1 is for mendelian so no
I might be wrong, but I think F2 generation refers to the third generation? As in, you cross the heterozygous offspring of the two pure breeds together again. That would give you the percentages shown.
I'm not sure about the question though. Maybe they want you to say that it's co-dominance since there's the roan, which is non-Mendelian.
I'm not sure about the question though. Maybe they want you to say that it's co-dominance since there's the roan, which is non-Mendelian.
yes thank u. can u explain to me how the f2 gen has those genotypes tho? because I thought f2 gen is the offspring of the parents--and this question says the parents are both pure bred so two homos RR and WW make 100% codominant RW right? why is the table like that
that would make more sense. it just confusing because sometimes they refer to the f2 gen as the offspring of the parents. thank u sm