can someone share the proof for this integrals (1 Viewer)

ExtremelyBoredUser

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You can just consider the derivatives of the answer and reverse engineer (Reverse chain rule). which is way more easier (just manipulate the fraction), but I'll treat it like I have no foresight:


Let so










as ln(a) is a constant value

Similarly for 2, just let x = asecu so you get something similar
 
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stupid_girl

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What's the point to create two separate formula when you can simply replace a^2 and -a^2 by a real constant k to get a single formula?

Differentiating RHS will give you LHS readily.
 

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