withoutaface said:Basically we know OM^2>OH^2 because it's the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle. If we work backwards:
-OH^2>-OM^2
r^2-OH^2>r^2-OM^2
(XY/2)^2 > (CD/2)^2 (pythagoras)
XY^2>CD^2
XY>CD
And we apply the same kind of argument to AB.
i THINK that what you THINK is wrong. unless the question specifically asks for proof by congruency, which it does not since otherwise you wouldn't be THINKING that it does, then what withoutaface has done here is perfectly legitimate... it's also probably the fastest method to doing this question.Originally Posted by Mellonie
BUt my point is thAT I THINK UR MENT TO PROVE BY CONGRUENCY..
CAN U SEE ANY OTHER WAY TO PROVE