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Complex numbers trick (1 Viewer)

Riviet

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Here is something interesting that my friend showed me the other day:
If 1 = sqrt(-1x-1)
then 1 = sqrt(-1) x sqrt(-1)
1 = i x i
1 = -1
2 = 0
Haha, can you explain it? :D
 

Wackedupwacko

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simple when dealing with complex numbers the normal rules regarding the square root are ignored... thus u cant expand to root(-1) x root(-1) rather u would hafta multiply the terms insides first...
 

webby234

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sqrt(ab) does not equal sqrt(a) x sqrt (b) when dealing with complex numbers (when a and b are negative).
 
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insert-username

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x squared = x + x + x.... x times
deriving both sides
2x = 1 + 1 + 1... x times
2x = x
2 = 1


You can't divide through by a variable because the variable may be 0. In this case, 2 x 0 = 1 x 0. Taking the derivative f both sides is also inaccurate, since (x2 - x - 6) = (x - 6) when x = 0, but when x is 0 the derivative of (x2 - x - 6) = -1, and the derivative of (x - 6) = 1.


I_F
 

gman03

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Riviet said:
Here is something interesting that my friend showed me the other day:
If 1 = sqrt(-1x-1)
then 1 = sqrt(-1) x sqrt(-1)
1 = i x i
1 = -1
2 = 0
Haha, can you explain it? :D
How is this odd? composition of functions dude
 

Riviet

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I never said it was odd. I said it was something interesting. :p
Anyway, i showed it to my maths teacher and he said it also had something to do with the arguments of i.
 

Trebla

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Remember that:

√(x²) = |x|

Since x can either be negative or positive
 

Wackedupwacko

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i still think the best one is this

(x² - x²) = (x² - x²) now lets factorize
x(x-x) = (x+x)(x-x)
x = 2x
1 =2

(see if you can spot where this is wrong
 

Templar

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webby234 said:
Reminds me of a proof -

x squared = x + x + x.... x times
deriving both sides
2x = 1 + 1 + 1... x times
2x = x
2 = 1
RHS only work for integral x, you can't differentiate a function with only point values.
 

PiGMAN

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Wackedupwacko said:
i still think the best one is this

(x² - x²) = (x² - x²) now lets factorize
x(x-x) = (x+x)(x-x)
x = 2x
1 =2

(see if you can spot where this is wrong
dividing by 0....
 

airie

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haha seen it somewhere else that someone mentioned that '1 can equal to 2 and it's proven mathematically...' except they never said how. reading this thread, it looks like their conclusion is baseless! :p ... or does anyone know how it can be proven otherwise? ... don't really think so, 1 doesn't equal to 2 after all...or does it? :p
 

Riviet

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This isn't related to complex numbers, but still another number trick:
1 = 9/9
= 9 x 1/9
= 9 x 0.111111111111111111111111111111111111......
= 0.999999999999999999999999999999999999999......
=/= 1

Soo infinitly close to 1 but not exactly equal to it. :D
 

Trebla

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I've heard that one before. There is no number between 0.99999.... and 1.0, so they can be considered practically equal.
 

SeDaTeD

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How about a surreal number haha?

The decimal representation 0.99999999.... is just an infinite series , whose limit is 1.
0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + ....
 

KeypadSDM

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Trebla said:
I've heard that one before. There is no number between 0.99999.... and 1.0, so they can be considered practically equal.
Under the basic defenitions of set theory & analysis you can prove that 0.99999... = 1

They're not practically equal, they ARE equal.

If they weren't, then limiting sums don't apply, and henceforth all of calculus is a fallacy.

Just use the cauchy convergence criteria on the summation of 9/(10^n) from n = 1 to infinity, and you'll see it converges to 1.
 

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