MedVision ad

continuous probability q (1 Viewer)

Joined
Mar 30, 2020
Messages
67
Gender
Male
HSC
2021
I think you have to justify it by thinking about how y=1/c is a horizontal line. If c=2 and you were finding the area from 0 to 2 under y=1/2, then your area would be 2/2=1 according to your E(x). Now this makes sense, as the probability from your lowest to highest bounds for a PDF should always be equal to 1.
 

yashbb

Active Member
Joined
Aug 15, 2021
Messages
194
Gender
Male
HSC
2022
I think you have to justify it by thinking about how y=1/c is a horizontal line. If c=2 and you were finding the area from 0 to 2 under y=1/2, then your area would be 2/2=1 according to your E(x). Now this makes sense, as the probability from your lowest to highest bounds for a PDF should always be equal to 1.
oh sorry i meant part c my b so sorry
 
Joined
Mar 30, 2020
Messages
67
Gender
Male
HSC
2021
oh sorry i meant part c my b so sorry
Right. So if you remember, the formula for Variance is , and is just the mean squared. In part b you found that the mean is , so the square of that is .

Now to find , integrate from 0 to c of the original PDF function but multiplied by . So find .

Once you have those two components, just plug them into the Variance formula above and you're done.
 
Last edited:

Trebla

Administrator
Administrator
Joined
Feb 16, 2005
Messages
8,391
Gender
Male
HSC
2006
Right. So if you remember, the formula for Variance is , and is just the mean squared. In part b you found that the mean is , so the square of that is .

Now to find , integrate from 0 to c of the original PDF function but SQUARED. So find .

Once you have those two components, just plug them into the Variance formula above and you're done.
FYI
 

Users Who Are Viewing This Thread (Users: 0, Guests: 1)

Top