Easy complex # question (1 Viewer)

Giant Lobster

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Yes, it is easy, and i cannot do it cos i suck :p

Anyway, here it is:

On an Argand diagram the points P and Q represent the numbers z_1 and z_2 respectively. OPQ is an equilateral triangle. SHow that (z_1)^2 + (z_2)^2 = (z_1)(z_2)

thanks
 

underthesun

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I'm stuck too:

let p = z_1, q = z_2

because OPQ is equilateral, q = p(cis(pi/3))

Trying direct substitution,

p^2 + q^2 = pq

p^2 + (p^2)cis(2pi/3) = (p^2)cis(pi/3)

divide all by p^2,

1 - cis(pi/3) + cis(2pi/3) = 0

1 - cos(pi/3) - isin(pi/3) + (cos(2pi/3) = -cos(pi/3)) + (isin(2pi/3) = isin(pi/3)) = 0

Now you can cancel the imaginary part.

1 - cos(pi/3) - cos(pi/3) = 0

and woah, cos(pi/3) turns out to be 0.5

1 - 0.5 - 0.5 = 0

wow, i worked it out. I thought i was stuck too..
 

MyLuv

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OPQ is equilateral--> z2=z1*cis60 (suppose z2 is on RHS of z1)-->z2^2=z1^2* (cis60)^2=z1^2*cis120
z1*z2= (z1)^2 * cis60
z1^2 +z2^2= z1^2 +z1^2*cis120 =z1^2(1+cis120)=z1^2*cis60
---> z1^2+z2^2= z1*z2
 

freaking_out

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Originally posted by MyLuv
Btw, how come all letters in the forum suddenly get too big???:confused:
??? maybe, its gotta do with the text size set by ya browser...if u have IE, then try going to view>text size...and change the size, c if that works.:)
 

underthesun

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Originally posted by freaking_out
hey so can u actually work backwards like that??:confused:
I'm not quite sure, and I dont' think i'll actually do that in an exam.

Anyways, in the half yearly I got full mark for a part that I worked on backwards like that, so there :D
 

Affinity

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hmm working backwards:

Idiots are humans
humans include (name)
therefore (name) is an idiot
 

freaking_out

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Originally posted by underthesun
I'm not quite sure, and I dont' think i'll actually do that in an exam.

Anyways, in the half yearly I got full mark for a part that I worked on backwards like that, so there :D
yeah, i asked coz my teacher said that u can't do that coz u're assuming the statement to b correct in the first place.:confused:
 

underthesun

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Originally posted by freaking_out
na, i don't think that u can do that in this case...
Let me see, I'll try that but not assuming that the case is true:

0 = 0

1 - 1 = 0

1 - 0.5 - 0.5 = 0

Because cos(pi/3) = 0.5 and cos(2pi/3) = -0.5,

1 - cos(pi/3) + cos(2pi/3) = 0 ....... equation (blah)

now:
sin(pi/3) = sin(2pi/3)

isin(pi/3) = isin(2pi/3)

isin(2pi/3) - isin(pi/3) = 0

adding the above to equation blah,

1 - cos(pi/3) - isin(pi/3) + cos(2pi/3) + isin(2pi/3) = 0

1 - cis(pi/3) + cis(2pi/3) = 0

1 + cis(2pi/3) = cis(pi/3)

multiply both side by p^2

p^2 + p^2*cis(2pi/3) = p*p(cis(pi/3))

let q = pcis(pi/3)

p^2 + (p(cis(pi/3)))^2 = pq

p^2 + q^2 = pq

now, p = z_1, q = z_2

z_1^2 + z_2^2 = (z_1)(z_2)

Basically what I wrote previously, having no idea where I was going, but this time I wrote it backwards up the page.

Alternatively, I wonder if you can write in the exam : "Please read from the end of the solution backwards, bleh bleh blah" etc.. :D
 

redslert

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i was told that you can work backwards.....all you have to do is write at the beginning, "assume statement is true"

it's just like doin something by just looking at it, you write "by inspection" so that the marker knows that you did it in your head
 

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