Hamlet - Listening Task (1 Viewer)

Thurstenburg

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I have a listening task on Hamlet on Monday, and I am a little perplexed about a one context in particular. I was just wondering if anyone can help me out?

1. Can anyone explain using dot points or a paragraph or whatever, the Elizabethan view on Hamlet?
 

NEVAGIVEUP

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I have a listening task on Hamlet on Monday, and I am a little perplexed about a one context in particular. I was just wondering if anyone can help me out?

1. Can anyone explain using dot points or a paragraph or whatever, the Elizabethan view on Hamlet?
- Hamlet was composed during the Renaissance period or Elizabethan/Jacobean era
- It was a Revenge Tragedy which was popular genre at this time as it dealt with Death (pugatory), Revenge, Incest, suicide all which were against the monarcy and the Church and it also highlighted the corruption of the monarchy
 

Thurstenburg

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- It was a Revenge Tragedy which was popular genre at this time as it dealt with Death (pugatory), Revenge, Incest, suicide all which were against the monarcy and the Church and it also highlighted the corruption of the monarchy
So what your saying is, they would have been disturbed by the themes in Hamlet, the revenge, incest, suicide?
 

NEVAGIVEUP

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So what your saying is, they would have been disturbed by the themes in Hamlet, the revenge, incest, suicide?
Not really disturbed by it but rather, enjoyed it. You see, the Elizabethen era was a time of Autocratic leadership whereby, society followed a "God-Ordianed Chain" that placed the King on the level of the God and the rest of society followed in a Hierarchical pyramid.

Therefore, to see the corruption of Monarchy was highly enjoyed and since Shakespeare dealt with the themes revenge, incest, suicide etc, it was a form of entertainment.

Did I confuse you more? :confused:
 
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I know this is a bit late, but I've got a little bit to add that may help.

...it dealt with Death (pugatory), Revenge, Incest, suicide all which were against the monarcy and the Church and it also highlighted the corruption of the monarchy
What I would like to point out here is that the play didn't openly criticise the Church or the monarchy - if this was the case the play certainly wouldn't have been allowed, especially since those from the Church and monarchy would have probably attended some sessions of it (I'll admit I haven't done research on this part, but I'm sure someone can confirm that Shakespeare was quite popular even in his time)

They didn't like Hamlet for being against the monarchy and the Church - well a select few may have seen it this way but many others would not have. Elizabethan audiences may have liked it for the horrific elements (the Ghost, which they would have taken much more seriously at the time), tragic and romantic aspects, and (as you said) for the death, revenge and suicide.

Incest (ie. the Freudian readings of the play) was something only intepreted after modern psychoanalysis was applied and it is unlikely that it would have been shown or even implied in the Elizabethan era.

Don't take this as some sort of flame, these are just views and are just intended to add information for those reading this.
 

terminator69

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Incest (ie. the Freudian readings of the play) was something only intepreted after modern psychoanalysis was applied and it is unlikely that it would have been shown or even implied in the Elizabethan era.
I don't understand what you mean by this. Even if it was something that was interpreted later it still always existed.
 
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I don't understand what you mean by this. Even if it was something that was interpreted later it still always existed.
I really need to check for replies more often. What I think I meant was that such an idea was intolerable in a play at that time; we just choose to see it that way because of the way the story is so conveniently open to such an interpretation. If you read the script without any knowledge of such a reading, there's little chance of coming to such a conclusion.

Melancholy was considered a medical illness at that time and so when it is mentioned that Hamlet is in a state of "melancholy" then I would believe that they truly mean him to be inflicted with a disease. Most Elizabethans would have accepted this as one of the main reasons for his misbehaviour rather than the more modern and intelligent (though far too over-complicating) interpretations.
 

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