Okay, well investigating the inequality for a bit, I found that I was a bit too hasty in establishing it and there are just way too many holes and that it is completely wrong and if I try to fix I end up with J=0 (without any influence from n) which isn't good. So I don't think Squeeze theorem won't work.
Now I need to show that for each of them as n approaches infinity the integral converges to zero. We can already say that about the middle term, so we just need to concentrate on the first term and the last term.
So...how do I do this? =(
What are some ways of proving an integral is convergent?