inverse trig (1 Viewer)

{*(00)*}

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you may want to write this down on paper...lol

how do you prove that " the derivative of inverse sine (x/a) is = to

1/√a^2 - x^2

and -prove that the inverse of tan x =

the derivative of inverse tan x, times x - (x / 1+x^2)

this question may be related to simpson's rule because this is a part (b) question, in part (a) it asked us the integral of inverse tanx, between 2 and 0, using simpson's rule, 5 functional values, and finish with a 2 dp approx.

i found the answer to be:12.66 for (a) but still confused on (b) thankyou!
 

Trev

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Let y=sin<sup>-1</sup>(x/a)
siny=x/a
x=asiny
dx/dy=acosy
dy/dx=1/(acosy)
Use cosy=√(1-sin<sup>2</sup>y)=√(1-(x/a)<sup>2</sup>) to get the required result.

Similarly for y=tan<sup>-1</sup>x
tany=x
dx/dy=sec<sup>2</sup>y
dy/dx=1/(sec<sup>2</sup>y)
sec<sup>2</sup>y=1+tan<sup>2</sup>y=1+x<sup>2</sup> etc.

Neither proofs use simpsons rule.
 

{*(00)*}

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thanks for help, btw, do you know how to type in math functions on ms word?
 

Mountain.Dew

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{*(00)*} said:
thanks for help, btw, do you know how to type in math functions on ms word?
in word, click on Insert > Object.

then, in the list, scroll down to Microsoft Equation 3.0, highlight it, then click ok.
 

{*(00)*}

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whoa, thanks man you just increased my productivity about 10000000000000%,
.
.
.
.
.
.
(and yes i am exaggeraring)...
 

Slidey

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{*(00)*} said:
(and yes i am exaggeraring)...
You don't say.

Anyway, there's also certain character combinations recognised in text bodies like when you go to post.

A lollipop to the person who posts a list.
 

alcalder

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¹ = alt 0185
º = alt 0186
± = alt 0177
² = alt 0178
³ = alt 0179
¼ = alt 0188
½ = alt 0189
¾ = alt 0190
÷ = alt 0247

Is that what you meant? Things like greek letters and integral signs do not have "alt" codes.
 

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