so they pulled it out of thin air just to make the inequality hold? coz if I did this myself I would never ever think of doing that
well its not necessarily out of thin air, they chose that specifically because it would make the inequality > 0. it seems random now, but it takes a bit of time to build up intuition on what to do in these inequality questions
there's also not one particular way to do this. for example, we could do this instead:
LHS = 2^(k+1)
= 2 x 2^k
> 2k^3 by assumption
then we can prove the lemma that 2k^3 > (k+1)^3
or that 2k^3 > k^3 + 3k^2 + 3k + 1
or that k^3 > 3k^2 + 3k + 1
let f(k) = k^3 - 3k^2 - 3k - 1
we want to prove that f(k) is increasing for k>=10
differentiating:
f'(k) = 3k^2 - 6k - 3
we want to prove that 3k^2 - 6k - 3 > 0 for k >= 10
(3k - 3)(k - 1) > 0, which is clearly true for k>= 10 by drawing the graph
f'(k) > 0 for k>=10, hence f(k) is increasing for k>= 10
then we can say that f(k) >= f(10) for k >= 10
so k^3 - 3k^2 - 3k - 1 >= 669 > 0 for k >= 10
or that k^3 > 3k^2 + 3k + 1 for k>= 10, which we know means that 2k^3 > (k+1)^3 for k>= 10
hence we see that LHS > 2k^3 > (k+1)^3 = RHS as required, hence by mathematical induction the statement is true for all k >= 10
as you can see there are different methods that require less "intuition" as to what to substitute in the inequality, it just depends if you can see the easy way, or if you want to go through everything i wrote above