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pi and e. (1 Viewer)

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Jago

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((pi^4) + (pi^5))^(1 / 6) = 2.7182818109

e^1 = 2.718281828


with a calculator
 

wanton-wonton

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Jago said:
((pi^4) + (pi^5))^(1 / 6) = 2.7182818109

e^1 = 2.718281828


with a calculator
But your calculator approximates pi. How do you know it wouldn't work for the real pi.
 

acmilan

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Using taylor polynomials about x=0:

e = 1/0! + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + ... + 1/n!

From memory theres two other definitions involving a limit and integration
 

wanton-wonton

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velox said:
The only reason you're saying that the calc approximates it is that it has a limited number of decimal places.
Well, yeah, what's your argument? Isn't that obvious?
 

David_O

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And calculators don't have an error of 3% lol.
The statement implies (e^3-pi^2)/pi^2 = 1; a calculator gives that number to be
1.03509038.
 

KFunk

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acmilan said:
From memory theres two other definitions involving a limit and integration
I remember one where you take the limit of (1 + 1/n)<sup>n</sup> as n --> &infin;. I think the proof of it requires a bit of integration (one method at least).
 

acmilan

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Yup thats the limit definition:

y = lim(n --> ∞) (1 + 1/n)n
lny = ln(lim(n --> ∞) (1 + 1/n)n)
lny = lim(n --> ∞) ln[(1 + 1/n)n]
lny = lim(n --> ∞) nln[1 + 1/n]
lny = lim(n --> ∞) ln[1 + 1/n]/(1/n)

You can use l'hopitals rule since that is 0/0

lny = lim(n --> ∞) [1 + 1/n]
lny = 1
y = e (by log definitions)

So e = lim(n --> ∞) (1 + 1/n)n

edit: e is also a unique number x > 0 such that int(1 to x) (1/t dt) = 1
 
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withoutaface

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That result is hardly significant. The following however, is supercool:

e<sup>i*pi</sup>+1=0
 
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Xayma

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withoutaface said:
That result is hardly significant. The following however, is supercool:

e<sup>i*pi</sup>+1=0
As if be lazy

e<sup>i&pi;</sup>+1=0

I like lim (x--->0) (e<sup>x</sup>-1)/x=x (which of course you can also see in the taylor polynomial that e<sup>x</sup>-1--->sin x as x-->0 or done via a limit using e<sup>ix</sup> :))
 
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MAICHI

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wanton-wonton said:
(pi^4 + pi^5)^1/6 is e or is approximately e. ?
Where did you get that from? Does anyone know what method is used to come up with that approximation?
 

brett86

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there seem to be an almost infinite number of ways to approximate pi and euler

2 more:

 
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MAICHI

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brett86 said:
there seem to be an almost infinite number of ways to approximate pi and euler
It's Euler's number, not Euler. :p

Yeah there are many ways to approximate them. I can get pi^4 with the Riemann Zeta Function that you've posted by changing r^2 to r^4. But how do you get a pi^5 approximation?
 
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