mathsbrain
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Question: How many ways for 5 DIFFERENT marbles to go in 3 jars so that 2 jars contains 2 marbles and the last jar contains one marble?
Solution: 5C2 * 3C2 * 1C1 * 3! / 2!
What my problem is: i understand that we firstly choose 2 out of 5, then 2 out of the remaining 3, then 1 out of 1, then 3! is for the different arrangements. It's the divide by 2! thats the problem. The jars and marbles are all different, why are we dividing by 2! ? any similar examples to illuminate this idea?
Also, say when you choose 2 boys from 3 boys, 3C2=3. One can try to do 3C1 * 2C1=6 and realise they have to divide by 2!(by the way when do we know to do this? Is it when we choosing from the same category?) because of ordering problem. But how come here 5C2 *3C2 *1C1 we don't have to? It seems only logical to divide by 3! here???
Solution: 5C2 * 3C2 * 1C1 * 3! / 2!
What my problem is: i understand that we firstly choose 2 out of 5, then 2 out of the remaining 3, then 1 out of 1, then 3! is for the different arrangements. It's the divide by 2! thats the problem. The jars and marbles are all different, why are we dividing by 2! ? any similar examples to illuminate this idea?
Also, say when you choose 2 boys from 3 boys, 3C2=3. One can try to do 3C1 * 2C1=6 and realise they have to divide by 2!(by the way when do we know to do this? Is it when we choosing from the same category?) because of ordering problem. But how come here 5C2 *3C2 *1C1 we don't have to? It seems only logical to divide by 3! here???