Where's this question from?
I think either way the integral is 0.
Let f(x) = sin(mx)
f(-x) = sin(-mx) = -sin(mx)
f(-x) = -f(x)
.: odd function
Let g(x) = cos(nx)
g(-x)=cos(-nx)=cos(nx)
g(-x)=g(x)
.: even function
We know that odd function x even function = odd function. We also know that the integral of any odd function from -a to a is 0. So the given integral has to be 0.
Simply integrating the given function will confirm this. After letting m = n, remember to rewrite sin(mx)cos(mx) = (1/2)*sin(2mx) using the double angle result for sine. The answer's 0, not pi.