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yet another induction question (1 Viewer)

kpq_sniper017

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Q15 from fitzpatrick:

Prove:
(1 + x)^n >= 1 + nx, x>0

i did the question, but i just want to make sure my proof was valid (or if theres a quicker, easier or better way of proving it).

ill skip step 1 (since u can assume it will true for n=1 anyway)


STEP 2:
Assume S(k) is true
.'. (1+x)^k >= 1 + kx, x>0
Consider S(k+1):
To prove: (1+x)^(k+1) >= 1 + (k+1)x

LHS = (1+x)^k.(1+x)
>= (1+kx)(1+x)
= 1 + x + kx + kx^2
= 1 + (k+1)x + kx^2

And then, since kx^2 is always > 0 (x^2 > 0 and k > 0):

(1+x )^k.(1+x) >= 1 + (k+1)x
.'. (1+x)^(k+1) >= 1 + (k+1)X, If S(k) is true

.'. S(k) => S(k+1)

BTW. My teacher told us to use => (implication symbol) - do teacher's recognise this symbol, or do you have to say what it means? i.e. => denotes "implies the truth of".

Anyways, I hope my proof is correct. The only thing I think I might have gone wrong in was the final step in my proof. What do you guys think?
 

CM_Tutor

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This can be done in a much much much easier way without induction. The proof of this result should be two lines long. If they ever say to prove this 'by induction or otherwise', go otherwise. :)
 

nike33

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Originally posted by CM_Tutor
This can be done in a much much much easier way without induction. The proof of this result should be two lines long. If they ever say to prove this 'by induction or otherwise', go otherwise. :)
can you post it please? :p
 

CM_Tutor

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Expanding (1 + x)<sup>n</sup> using the binomial theorem, we get (1 + x)<sup>n</sup> = 1 + <sup>n</sup>C<sub>1</sub>x + <sup>n</sup>C<sub>2</sub>x<sup>2</sup> + ... + <sup>n</sup>C<sub>n</sub>x<sup>n</sup>.
Now, all terms <sup>n</sup>C<sub>k</sub>x<sup>k</sup> > 0 for k = 1, 2, 3, ..., n, as x > 0, and <sup>n</sup>C<sub>1</sub> = n, and so (1 + x)<sup>n</sup> => 1 + nx
 
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Grey Council

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i'm quite sure it is. It's the definition of binomial theorem, i don't see why we wouldn't be able to expand it.

i think that we even have to memorise that formula thing.
 

CM_Tutor

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Originally posted by kimmeh
is that valid in an exam though ?
Yes it is, as binomial theorem is in the Extn 1 syllabus - many people won't have done it yet, but that's another story...

Note, my answer is provided the question allows this solution. If it said 'Prove that, for all x > 0, (1 + x)<sup>n</sup> => 1 + nx, for integers n > 0', then mine is a valid (and the best) solution. If it said 'Prove by induction on n, a positive integer, that (1 + x)<sup>n</sup> => 1 + nx for x > 0', then it would not be a valid solution, as I haven't used induction, and you'd need to write something along the lines of pcx_demolition017's solution. If it started 'Prove by induction, or otherwise' then my solution is again the easiest way to go. :)
 
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kpq_sniper017

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so i take it my solution is correct?

i find inequality inductions to be the most difficult.....maybe its just me, but i find i have to kind of twist it around a bit (that's the hardest bit).

do any of u guys have any tips for solving inequality inductions? ive done some inequality proofs before (and i think im right), but it just seems like the proof isnt "valid enough" - probably is, but i find that with ones like the one above, it doesn't seem like enough.......probably just me :)
 

Grey Council

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yeah, i have a tip.

do heaps of inequality induction questions. :)
 

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