stupid_girl
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For this integral, some trig identities may make your life easier. Of course, Weierstrass substitution will also work.
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \int_0^{\pi}\frac{\cos x}{2\sec x-\cos x+2\tan x}dx)
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white =\int_0^{\pi}\frac{1}{2\sec^2x-1+2\sec x\tan x}dx)
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white =\int_0^{\pi}\frac{1}{\left(\sec x+\tan x\right)^2}dx)
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white =\int_0^{\pi}\left(\sec x-\tan x\right)^2dx)
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white =\int_0^{\pi}\left(2\sec^2x-1-2\sec x\tan x\right)dx)
It seems no one has attempted yet. This one is a little bit interesting.#83 and #88 are still outstanding and this is a new one.
Feel free to share your attempt.
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Where are you pulling these questions from?New integral:
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New integral:
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I'll leave the intended solution for someone else to write out (p.s I think you need to be a bit careful about the first part, the integrals are indefinite so equality will only hold up to a constant as written.)For, let
Prove that
Given that
Show that
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Yep, works super well for these integrals with logs.is that Leibnitz?