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why on earth do ppl love the advanced maths option so much...its so restrictive...anyway, in terms of employability, finance law is good, and has maximum employability if ur aiming for the finance industry. on the contrary, maths gets so much more interesting after first year (in my opinion at...

if you want to do maths with actuarial, pair it with a regular B.Sc with a math major; don't do advanced maths. Downsides of Adv. maths: - You must do an honors year in maths; this isn't everyone's cup of tea - You must do SCIF; this course is well known to be boring, irrelevant, and also...

correct for part 1, incorrect for part 2. part 2 exemptions have changed effective from this year, you will now have to complete ACTL4001, ACTL4002 and the undergrad equivalent of ACTL5303. entrance into ACTL4001 will require all part 1 exemptions, or, if one or two part 1 courses are...

it really depends, but you can expect to attend uni at least 4 days a week. u will usually have 18 hours of classes per week in first yr, and slightly less than that, around 16, in higher yrs.

Yeah, I'm doing Comm (Actuarial)/Sci (Math/Stats). Its a pretty interesting and fun degree, the math subs are especially interesting (and also easier than the actuarial subs). Just watch out for first year, the core commerce courses are pretty boring (to me at least lol).

Yeah, I'm doing Comm (Actuarial)/Sci (Math/Stats). Its a pretty interesting and fun degree, the math subs are especially interesting (and also easier than the actuarial subs). Just watch out for first year, the core commerce courses are pretty boring (to me at least lol).

Most ppl follow the first 3yrs in the sample complete plan pretty much to the letter (except some ppl choose science electives other than COMP1911, i.e. I chose higher physics, and I kno some ppl chose psychology). Year 4, most ppl choose math electives that suit their interests, so it varies...

man what the hell's happening to tech...there was a time where we were 14th...seems like every time we change to a new principal the rankings plummet...and ppl thought my yr was bad lol...

a bit of both really, theres some overlap between actuarial and stats, for basic stats, where u take MATH2901 and MATH2931 instead of ACTL2002, it tends to be taught better by the math department (and is also actually easier imo, 2002 is a very compact course, they crammed bits and pieces from 3...

No, you can only do the math/stats double. tho imo, the finance major doesnt really give u much quantitative skill.

Hi lyounamu, In case u didn't kno, the Math department has made arrangements with the school of business so that u can actually do a double degree in the science component in maths and stats, so in the end u would come out with a Commerce (Actuarial Studies)/Science (Mathematics/Statistics)...

My mechanics are a bit rusty, but i think this is right... For part c, u kno that T1>0, but T2 may not necessarily be 0. Since both tensions have to be positive, set T2>0. T2=mrw^2-mgsin(theta)>0 rw^2>gtan(theta) Since r=4asin(theta), 4aw^2sin(theta)>gtan(theta) 4aw^2>gsec(theta)=5g/4 Therefore...

Through a substitution of t=(x-muu)/sigma any normal distribution can be written in the form (1/root2pi)e^-(0.5t^2). So we just have to prove that the integral of e^-(0.5x^2) from -infinity to infinity is root2pi. Letting I=∫[e^-(0.5x^2)]dx=∫[e^-(0.5y^2)]dy (where these 2 integrals are...

Quite happy with my results :) (though calculus could have been higher ><) UNSW Assessment Results for Semester 1 2008 Issued at Thu Jul 10 22:00:25 2008 ======================================================== Session Course Title Result...

The crux of this question is to realize that at collision, the 2 particles will have the same height. Then u want to find a relation between the projection speed of B, which is v, and the projection speed of A (btw thats another flaw of ur previous attempt, u is not the projection speed of B)...

Ronnknee, your working is incorrect. sin(a) cannot =1, as that implies a=pi/2, which implies a vertical projection, which would result in the 2 particles never colliding. If a were to be pi/2, tan(a) would then be undefined anyway. Also u doesnt necessarily have to equal v. Refer to the solution...

2. Equation of motion for A: dy/dt=-gt+u (where y represents horizontal displacement) A reaches its greatest height when dy/dt=0 Denoting time of collision by T, T=u/g Equation of motion for B: dy/dt=-gt+vsin(a) (a is the angle of projection alpha, v is the velocity of projection from B)...

No, my question is typed correctly. That integral has no closed form solution if its indefinite, however, it has a nice exact answer if u integrate it over 0 to 1. Integration by parts is going to get u nowhere, u have to try a different approach.

There is also another curious way to do this integral, I'll leave another peson to do the by parts method, here is the other method: Consider f(t)=∫e^(ut)dt df/dt=∫ue^(ut)dt Also, f(t)=[e^(ut)]/u so df/dt=[ute^(ut)-e^(ut)]/t^2 Therefore ∫ue^(ut)dt=[ute^(ut)-e^(ut)]/t^2 Letting t=1 gives ∫ue^u...

Taylor series expansion is not the best way to approach this problem as it gives an infinite series even for small values of n. Its just an integration by parts problem. I=[1/(n+1)]x^(n+1)arctanx-[1/(n+1)]∫x^(n+1)/(1+x^2)dx A reduction can be formed for ∫x^(n+1)/(1+x^2)dx...