There should be 1/(n-k)! due to the partial fractions coefficients change(-1)^k is the same as (-1)^(2+k)
The expression looks decent. I can't be bothered figuring out my combinatorics right now, but I found this:
The binomial coefficients spit out a 1/(n-k)! quantity anyway.There should be 1/(n-k)! due to the partial fractions coefficients change
EDIT: and not so sure about the bionomial coefficients that you had ?
hmmmm... what method did you useThe binomial coefficients spit out a 1/(n-k)! quantity anyway.
I suppose, if the binomial coefficients were expanded I'd have ended up with a 1/(k!) * 1/(n-k)!
I checked on Wolfram Alpha and I realised that the terms followed Pascal's triangle, which was what lead me to the assumption of the binomial coefficient being related.
yeah i did the samePartial fractions on n=0, 1, 2, 3 then I checked them on WolframAlpha. Didn't realise a pattern with the binomial coefficients until they put it up though. Then I just plugged n=4 and n=5 in and it turned out to be the same. I couldn't be bothered doing over n=3
Oh whoops I forgot a +C...
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Have a break.
Can't do it with elementary functions
The reduction formula is:Just asking out of curiosity, do you make up integrals on the spot Drsoccerball? When I do that I usually plug them into mathematica or something to make sure they work. Friendly advice
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Integral is positive and comes out to be something interesting, as found by a quite tedious computation (involving polynomial division etc.).