Question 10
Comments
- Though we are not asked for the value of
, it could be easily found as the total cumulative probability must be 1, and so
and the PDF can never be negative, which means that
. Since we also know that
, there is only one possible value for
, which is
.
is an even function, and so the symmetry properties of this PDF will be the same as the standard normal distribution.
- There is something wrong with this question.
Option
A is true because of the even symmetry.
Option
B is true for any PDF.
Option
C can only be true if both of the expressions given are
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \cfrac{1}{3})
, because the given
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \text{LHS}\ = P(X < -0.2))
and adding this gives the whole distribution with a total value of 1, and so it occurs at only one value... the question becomes, is that value 0.2?
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \begin{align*} \text{Let $a > 0$ be the value where}\ P(X > a) &=\cfrac{1}{3} \\ \int_a^{\infty} f(x)\ dx &= \cfrac{1}{3} \\ \int_a^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \cos{2x}\ dx + \int_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\infty} 0\ dx &=\cfrac{1}{3} \\ \left[\cfrac{1}{2}\sin{2x}\right]_a^{\frac{\pi}{4}} + 0 &= \cfrac{1}{3} \\ \cfrac{1}{2}\left[\sin{2\left(\cfrac{\pi}{4}\right)} - \sin{2a}\right] &= \cfrac{1}{3} \\ \sin{\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)} - \sin{2a} &= \cfrac{2}{3} \\ 1 - \sin{2a} &= \cfrac{2}{3} \\ \sin{2a} &= \cfrac{1}{3} \\ a &= 0.169918... \end{align*})
So, option
C is false as it is actually
Option
D can only be true if both of the expressions given are
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \cfrac{1}{4})
, because the LHS + RHS covers half the distribution, and so they must add to
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \cfrac{1}{2})
, which also occurs at only one value... and so the question again becomes, is that value 0.2?
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white \begin{align*} \text{Let $a > 0$ be the value where}\ P(X > a) &=\cfrac{1}{4} \\ \int_a^{\infty} f(x)\ dx &= \cfrac{1}{4} \\ \int_a^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \cos{2x}\ dx + \int_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\infty} 0\ dx &=\cfrac{1}{4} \\ \left[\cfrac{1}{2}\sin{2x}\right]_a^{\frac{\pi}{4}} + 0 &= \cfrac{1}{4} \\ \cfrac{1}{2}\left[\sin{2\left(\cfrac{\pi}{4}\right)} - \sin{2a}\right] &= \cfrac{1}{4} \\ \sin{\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)} - \sin{2a} &= \cfrac{1}{2} \\ 1 - \sin{2a} &= \cfrac{1}{2} \\ \sin{2a} &= \cfrac{1}{2} \\ 2a &= \cfrac{\pi}{6} \\ a &= \cfrac{\pi}{12} \approx 0.261799... \end{align*})
So, option
D is false as it is actually
I have two problems with this question... the first is that there are two correct answers, unless I have made a mistake in looking at A and B. The second is that actually finding the boundaries for where expressions like those in C and D become true is a lot to ask in time and effort if there was not an obvious correct answer in A or B, starting with finding the only possible value for
![](https://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\bg_white k)
.