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xiao1985

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awwwwwwwwwww i just LOVE maths...

EVERY ONE!!! DO B SCI (ADV MATHS)@ USYD!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
 

Affinity

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well do the substitution

dx = -1/u^2 du

you get integrate { sqrt(3), 1/sqrt(3) } -ln(1/u) / [( 1 + (1/u)^2 ) * ( u^2)] du

simplyfy you get I = -I
so.. I = 0
 

+Po1ntDeXt3r+

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ToO LaZy ^* said:
got another question..hmm..
1)if BXC is a right angle
then CB is a diameter of a circle with pts C,X,B on circumference
if CM=MB
then M is the centre of this circle.
hence M is equidistant to C,X,B

XM=CM=MB
then
MXB = XBM - (angles opp equal sides are equal in isosceles triangle, MXB)
QED

2) MXB = CAP (angle subtended by equal arcs on circle)
MXB = XBM (from 1)
MXC = pi/2 - MXB = pi/2-XBM (angle sum from BXC is right angle n equality)
AXN = MXC = pi/2 - XBM= pi/2 - MXB (vertically opp angles)

MNA = CAP + AXN = MXB + 90 - MXB = pi/2..
since MNA is 90deg then MN is perpendicular to AD

sorri the reasons are dodgy.. ivve just woken up :S
grr miss 4U maths :S
 
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+Po1ntDeXt3r+ said:
1)if BXC is a right angle
then CB is a diameter of a circle with pts C,X,B on circumference
if CM=MB
then M is the centre of this circle.
hence M is equidistant to C,X,B
how did you get that?..is that a rule that i may have missed?

+Po1ntDeXt3r+ said:
2) MXB = CAP (angle subtended by equal arcs on circle)
where is this point P you speak of? :confused:
 

CM_Tutor

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ToO LaZy ^* said:
how did you get that?..is that a rule that i may have missed?
The rule in question is the converse of the angle in a semicircle rule.

Rule: If AB is the diameter of a circle, and C is on the circumfrence, then angle ACB (the angle in the semicircle) is a right angle
Converse: If ACB is a right angle, then AB is the diameter of a semicircle through C.
 

CM_Tutor

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ToO LaZy ^* said:
where is this point P you speak of? :confused:
+Po1ntDeXt3r+ means D, not P, and the first line should be MBX, not MXB.

ie. it should start: MBX = CAD (angles at the circumfrence on the same arc are equal)

The method itself is fine.
 
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CM_Tutor said:
The rule in question is the converse of the angle in a semicircle rule.

Rule: If AB is the diameter of a circle, and C is on the circumfrence, then angle ACB (the angle in the semicircle) is a right angle
Converse: If ACB is a right angle, then AB is the diameter of a semicircle through C.
ohhhhh...ok.
is this done in harder 3u?...coz i swear it's not in 3u circle geometry..

CM_Tutor said:
+Po1ntDeXt3r+ means D, not P, and the first line should be MBX, not MXB.

ie. it should start: MBX = CAD (angles at the circumfrence on the same arc are equal)

The method itself is fine.
ohk..thanks champ :D
 

+Po1ntDeXt3r+

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lolz oops.. methods good -2 marks for mistake..

look i just woke up when i did it :D sorri
 

+Po1ntDeXt3r+

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thanks CM_tutor.. Diagram was too small .. should hav listened to 4U teacher.. 1/2 A4 page diagrams :p
med writing didnt help.. P=D.. :S

umm mabbe it is harder 3U but it wasnt tat difficult.. if its a Q8 where did u get it from??
 
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+Po1ntDeXt3r+ said:
thanks CM_tutor.. Diagram was too small .. should hav listened to 4U teacher.. 1/2 A4 page diagrams :p
med writing didnt help.. P=D.. :S

umm mabbe it is harder 3U but it wasnt tat difficult.. if its a Q8 where did u get it from??
yeah...maybe if i had heard of the rule, i might of had a chance.... :uhhuh:
it's from the 1999 CSSA paper
 

+Po1ntDeXt3r+

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oh .. tat wasnt hard for a CSSA was Q8 the last one? :|

umm i went thru the 4U math syllabus to get all the rules that i MUST kno..
the rest were extras i picked up in past papers..

hmm there is a hard epping boys paper.. from lik 1997 or 98..
ruse papers will definately have them.. pre-03 are pretti hard esp 4U.. but 03 trials are tame.. 3U was hard..
umm lik i always sed just get the basics right and the hard stuff should fall in to place :D oh experience counts too ^^
gd luck
 
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yeah q8 was the last question.

in the meantime..take a look at this question if you haev spare time :)
question 7 from 2000 CSSA paper...
 

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(a) I<sub>n</sub> = &int; (0-->1) (x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup> dx, n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
= [x(x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup>] (0-->1) - &int; (0-->1) x d(x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup>
= [1 * (1<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup> - 0 * (0<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup>] - &int; (0-->1) x * n(x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n-1</sup> * 2x dx, for n = 1, 2, 3, ...
= [0 - 0] - &int; (0-->1) 2nx<sup>2</sup>(x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n-1</sup> dx
= -2n * &int; (0-->1) (x<sup>2</sup> - 1 + 1)(x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n-1</sup> dx
= -2n * &int; (0-->1) (x<sup>2</sup> - 1)(x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n-1</sup> dx - 2n * &int; (0-->1) 1 * (x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n-1</sup> dx
= -2n * &int; (0-->1) (x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup> dx - 2n * &int; (0-->1) (x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n-1</sup> dx

So, we have I<sub>n</sub> = -2nI<sub>n</sub> - 2nI<sub>n-1</sub>, for n = 1, 2, 3, ...
(1 + 2n)I<sub>n</sub> = -2nI<sub>n-1</sub>

So, I<sub>n</sub> = [-2n / (2n + 1)]I<sub>n-1</sub>, for n = 1, 2, 3, ... as required

Note that I<sub>0</sub> = &int; (0-->1) 1 dx = [x] (0-->1) = 1 - 0 = 1

(b) Theorem If I<sub>n</sub> = &int; (0-->1) (x<sup>2</sup> - 1)<sup>n</sup> dx, for n = 0, 1, 2, ..., and noting that I<sub>n</sub> = -2nI<sub>n-1</sub> / (2n + 1), for n = 1, 2, 3, ..., then I<sub>n</sub> = (-1)<sup>n</sup>2<sup>2n</sup>(n!)<sup>2</sup> / (2n + 1)!, for positive integers n.

Proof: by induction on n

A Put n = 1: LHS = I<sub>1</sub> = [-2(1) / (2(1) + 1)] * I<sub>0</sub> = (-2 / 3) * 1 = -2 / 3
RHS = (-1)<sup>1</sup>2<sup>2(1)</sup>(1!)<sup>2</sup> / (2(1) + 1)! = -1 * 4 * 1<sup>2</sup> / 3! = -4 / 6 = -2 / 3 = LHS

So, the result is true for n = 1.

B Let k be a value of n for which the result is true.
That is, I<sub>k</sub> = (-1)<sup>k</sup>2<sup>2k</sup>(k!)<sup>2</sup> / (2k + 1)! _____ (**)
We must now prove the result for n = k + 1.
That is, we must prove that I<sub>k+1</sub> = (-1)<sup>k+1</sup>2<sup>2k+2</sup>[(k + 1)!]<sup>2</sup> / (2k + 3)!

LHS = I<sub>k+1</sub>
= -2(k + 1)I<sub>k</sub> / (2k + 3)
= [-2(k + 1) / (2k + 3)] * (-1)<sup>k</sup>2<sup>2k</sup>(k!)<sup>2</sup> / (2k + 1)!, using the induction hypothesis (**)
= [(-1) * 2 * (k + 1) * (-1)<sup>k</sup> * 2<sup>2k</sup> * (k!)<sup>2</sup>] / [(2k + 1)! * (2k + 3)]
= [(-1) * (-1)<sup>k</sup> * 2 * 2<sup>2k</sup> * (k + 1) * k! * k!] / [(2k + 1)! * (2k + 3)] * [(2k + 2) / (2k + 2)]
= [(-1)<sup>k+1</sup> * 2<sup>2k+1</sup> * (k + 1) * k! * k! * 2(k + 1)] / [(2k + 1)! * (2k + 3) * (2k + 2)]
= [(-1)<sup>k+1</sup> * 2<sup>2k+1</sup> * 2 * (k + 1) * k! * k! * (k + 1)] / [(2k + 3) * (2k + 2) * (2k + 1)!]
= [(-1)<sup>k+1</sup> * 2<sup>2k+2</sup> * (k + 1)! * (k + 1)!] / [(2k + 3) * (2k + 2) * (2k + 1)!]
= [(-1)<sup>k+1</sup> * 2<sup>2k+2</sup> * ((k + 1)!)<sup>2</sup>] / (2k + 3)!
= (-1)<sup>k+1</sup>2<sup>2k+2</sup>[(k + 1)!]<sup>2</sup> / (2k + 3)!
= RHS

So, if the result is true for n = k, then it follows that it is also true for n = k + 1.

C It follows from A and B by mathematical induction that the result is true for all positive integers n.
 
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wow thanks

i used the wrong method to start off with....-_-"
i had..

int[0->1] (x<sup>2</sup>-1)<sup>n-1</sup>*(x<sup>2</sup>-1)<sup>n</sup>
*slaps forehead*
 

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the equation of the normal to the ellipse of standard form (a^2 > b^2) at the point P(x1,y1) is a^2y1.x - b^2x1.y = (a^2 - b^2)x1.y1

This normal meets the major axis of the ellipse at G. S is the focus of the ellipse. Show that GS = e.PS (where e is the eccentricity of the ellipse)

Ok i found the co-ords of G and doing found GS but for the PS part i went manually with the distance formula and it looks like it gets messy any easier ways to do this one/ cheers
 

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The acceleration due to gravity at a distance r from the earth's centre is directed towards the centre and equal to k/r^2 when r>R, equal to kr when r < R and equal to g when r = R. Imagine a narrow tunnel along a diameter XY of the earth and the particle is projected from X with initial velocity U towards Y. (R = radius of earth)

If U^2 < 2gR, prove that motion is oscillatory and amplitude is given by R / (1 - U^2/2gR)

Just started resisted motion, little confused.
 

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i guess u can try using the definition of an ellipse ps/pm = e
where m is the perpindicular foot of p on the directrix

so then you get GS = e^2PM
and PM is just a straighht line distance
 

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