• Want to help us with this year's BoS Trials?
    Let us know before 30 June. See this thread for details
  • Looking for HSC notes and resources?
    Check out our Notes & Resources page

HSC 2012 MX2 Marathon (archive) (2 Viewers)

deswa1

Well-Known Member
Joined
Jul 12, 2011
Messages
2,256
Gender
Male
HSC
2012
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Using the fact that <a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz_{1}-argz_{2}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz^{_{1}}-argz_{2}" title="arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz^{_{1}}-argz_{2}" /></a>

Prove that <a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" title="tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" /></a>
 

Carrotsticks

Retired
Joined
Jun 29, 2009
Messages
9,494
Gender
Undisclosed
HSC
N/A
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Using the fact that <a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz_{1}-argz_{2}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz^{_{1}}-argz_{2}" title="arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz^{_{1}}-argz_{2}" /></a>

Prove that <a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" title="tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" /></a>
Haha I made a very similar question to this a couple of months ago, but the first question was:

Show that:



Then I got them to deduce a similar identity to yours.
 

seanieg89

Well-Known Member
Joined
Aug 8, 2006
Messages
2,662
Gender
Male
HSC
2007
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

An easy polynomials question:

 

kingkong123

Member
Joined
Dec 20, 2011
Messages
98
Gender
Male
HSC
2012
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Using the fact that

Prove that
let z1 = 1 + 2i and z2 = 3 +i
therefore arg(z1) = arctan(2) and arg(z2)=arctan(1/3)
we want to prove arctan(2) - arctan(1/) = pi/4 ie arg(z1)-arg(z2)=pi/4

arg(z1)-arg(z2)=arg(z1/z2) where z1/z2 = (1+i)/2

arg( (1+i)/2 ) = pi/4.

therefore as required. were u asking this because u didnt know how or just as a forum question? nice question
 

Nooblet94

Premium Member
Joined
Feb 5, 2011
Messages
1,044
Gender
Male
HSC
2012
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Using the fact that <a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz_{1}-argz_{2}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz^{_{1}}-argz_{2}" title="arg\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=argz^{_{1}}-argz_{2}" /></a>

Prove that <a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" title="tan^{-1}2-tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi }{4}" /></a>
<a href="http://www.codecogs.com/eqnedit.php?latex=\\\textrm{Let}~z_1=1@plus;2i~\textrm{and}~z_2=3@plus;i\\ \arg z_1=\frac{2}{1}=2\\ \arg z_2=\frac{1}{3}\\ ~\\\textrm{Now,}\\ \frac{z_1}{z_2} =\frac{(1@plus;2i)(3-i)}{(3@plus;i)(3-i))}=\frac{5@plus;5i}{10}\\~\\ \therefore \arg\frac{z_1}{z_2}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2}}=1\\ \textrm{But}~\arg\frac{z_1}{z_2}=\arg z_1-\arg z_2\\ \therefore \tan^{-1}2-\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}" target="_blank"><img src="http://latex.codecogs.com/gif.latex?\\\textrm{Let}~z_1=1+2i~\textrm{and}~z_2=3+i\\ \arg z_1=\frac{2}{1}=2\\ \arg z_2=\frac{1}{3}\\ ~\\\textrm{Now,}\\ \frac{z_1}{z_2} =\frac{(1+2i)(3-i)}{(3+i)(3-i))}=\frac{5+5i}{10}\\~\\ \therefore \arg\frac{z_1}{z_2}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2}}=1\\ \textrm{But}~\arg\frac{z_1}{z_2}=\arg z_1-\arg z_2\\ \therefore \tan^{-1}2-\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}" title="\\\textrm{Let}~z_1=1+2i~\textrm{and}~z_2=3+i\\ \arg z_1=\frac{2}{1}=2\\ \arg z_2=\frac{1}{3}\\ ~\\\textrm{Now,}\\ \frac{z_1}{z_2} =\frac{(1+2i)(3-i)}{(3+i)(3-i))}=\frac{5+5i}{10}\\~\\ \therefore \arg\frac{z_1}{z_2}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2}}=1\\ \textrm{But}~\arg\frac{z_1}{z_2}=\arg z_1-\arg z_2\\ \therefore \tan^{-1}2-\tan^{-1}\frac{1}{3}=\tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}" /></a>
 

deswa1

Well-Known Member
Joined
Jul 12, 2011
Messages
2,256
Gender
Male
HSC
2012
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

were u asking this because u didnt know how or just as a forum question? nice question
Nah, I already did it. It was in a question by topic book but I thought it was a neat question so I posted it :)
 

Carrotsticks

Retired
Joined
Jun 29, 2009
Messages
9,494
Gender
Undisclosed
HSC
N/A
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

This problem can be further generalised.

Here is an extension to deswa1's problem:

Show that all the values satisfying the condition...



... lie on the hyperbola:

 

deswa1

Well-Known Member
Joined
Jul 12, 2011
Messages
2,256
Gender
Male
HSC
2012
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Before I have a go, is it meant to be inverse tan(x) MINUS inverse tan(y) or is the question you posted correct?
 

Carrotsticks

Retired
Joined
Jun 29, 2009
Messages
9,494
Gender
Undisclosed
HSC
N/A
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Before I have a go, is it meant to be inverse tan(x) MINUS inverse tan(y) or is the question you posted correct?
The formula you have with the minus sign is a specific case for the generalised version:



Good solution nightweaver066.
 

Carrotsticks

Retired
Joined
Jun 29, 2009
Messages
9,494
Gender
Undisclosed
HSC
N/A
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Here's a bit of a tricky question, similar to that in the HSC (forgot which year, I think 2007?)

 
Last edited:

bleakarcher

Active Member
Joined
Jul 8, 2011
Messages
1,509
Gender
Male
HSC
2013
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Dont you mean the limit as n approaches infinity?
 

SpiralFlex

Well-Known Member
Joined
Dec 18, 2010
Messages
6,960
Gender
Female
HSC
N/A
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon









Edit: Damn BOS NEVER LINKS ME TO THE LAST PAGE. >_>
 

nightweaver066

Well-Known Member
Joined
Jul 7, 2010
Messages
1,585
Gender
Male
HSC
2012
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Here's a bit of a tricky question, similar to that in the HSC (forgot which year, I think 2007?)

After tedious working out,



As n -> infinity,





This means that as n approaches an infinitely large number, the stationary point and inflexion point will coincide (ignoring x = 0) and there will be a horizontal inflexion point. (is this right? lol)
 
Last edited:

bleakarcher

Active Member
Joined
Jul 8, 2011
Messages
1,509
Gender
Male
HSC
2013
Re: 2012 HSC MX2 Marathon

Geometrically it means that as n approaches positive infinity the limiting ratio of the x-coordinates of the inflexion point to the stationary point of the curve y=x^n*log[e][x^n] is one?
 

Users Who Are Viewing This Thread (Users: 0, Guests: 2)

Top