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f(x) represents the y values and 1/f(x) means 1 over every y value. So you use limits as f(x) appraoches 0 and infinity andwhat is the best method of graphing 1/f(x) graphs? for example 1/sinx?
No its not...Trebla's original question with limits 0 --> pi/2 was actually convergent. Just because a point is undefined, does not necessarily mean that the area is automatically infinite.
This does seem true, but e ing bothNo its not...
Then as d approaches pi/2, cosd -> 0, and tand + secd -> positive infinity. So its pretty clear that the integral has to diverge
Something I predict will appear in either the school Trials or the Complex Number exam term test (verified appeared in already 3 schools as per my prediction last year haha):I don't want to spoil the party but...
Any chance we could have questions more orientated towards a regular MX2 student, or a little harder, but something that most should at least be able to attempt. A lot of people would probably be scared off, especially since you guys are into or out of uni maths already!